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LIST OF MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

LIST OF MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

LIST OF MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS IN NEUROSURGERY

 

1. EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE FREQUENTLY FOLLOWED BY:

a)      skull fractures

b)      nasal liquorrhoea

c)      auricular liquorrhoea

d)      ventricular hematomas

e)      pneumocephalus

 

2. EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE MOSTLY LIMITED BY:

a)      cerebral cortex

b)      choroid plexuses

c)      falciform processus

d)      tentorium cerebelli

e)      skull sutures

 

3. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE CHARACTERIZED BY:

a)      Foster-Kennedy syndrome

b)      pulsatile exophthalmus

c)      symptom “lucid period”

d)      Bruns’ syndrome

e)      complete block of subarachnoid space during Queckenstedt test

 

4. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE CHARACTERIZED BY:

a)      anisocoria

b)      anisocytosis

c)      hemibalismus

d)      hemihyperaesthesia

e)      hemiathetosis

 

5. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE CHARACTERIZED BY:

a)      hemiparesis or hemiplegia on the side of hematoma

b)      hemiparesis or hemiplegia on the contralateral side

c)      hemianaesthesia or hemiplegia on the side of hematoma

d)      choreoathetosis on the contralateral side

e)      hemibalismus on the contralateral sided

 

6. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS FREQUENTLY MANIFEST WITH:

a)      hypersalivation

b)      hyperhydrosis

c)      seizures

d)      acute adrenal failure

e)      toxic shock

 

7. BRADYCARDIA, HEMIPARESIS AND MIDRIASIS ARE CLASSIС:

a)      carotid-cavernous fistula

b)      Arnold-Chiari anomaly

c)      pituitary tumor

d)      compression vascular neuropathy

e)      traumatic intracranial hematoma

 

8. DURING DECOMPRESSIVE SKULL TREPANATION:

a)      dura mater is dissected

b)      dura mater is never cut open

 

9. SOURCES FOR FORMATION OF EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE:

a)      anterior choroid artery

b)      pial veins

c)      choroid plexuses of the lateral ventricles

d)      choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle

e)      arteries of the circle of Willis

 

10. SOURCES FOR FORMATION OF SUBDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE:

a)      anterior choroid artery

b)      pial veins

c)      choroid plexuses of the lateral ventricles

d)      d choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle

e)      arteries of the circle of Willis

 

11. THERE EXIST THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS:

a)      epidural

b)      intradural

c)      subdural

d)      intracerebral

e)      intraventricular

 

12. MAJOR TYPES OF MEMORY DISORDERS IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:

a)      congrade amnesia

b)      anterograde amnesia

c)      retrograde amnesia

d)      cognitive amnesia

 

13. ANISOCORIA IN RIGHT-SIDE SUBDURAL HEMATOMA PRESENTS WITH:

a)      left-side myosis

b)      right-side ptosis

c)      left-side mydriasis

d)      right-side mydriasis

 

14. THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF PRESSED SKULL FRACTURES ARE DISTINGUISHED:

a)      impressive

b)      expressive

c)      depressive

d)      linear

e)      perforate

 

15. CAUSES OF EARLY PROLAPSE OF THE BRAIN ARE:

a)      brain edema and swelling

b)      development of encephalitis

c)      development of brain abscess

d)      acute hydrocephalus

e)      formation of intracranial hematomas

 

16 ACUTE INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE THOSE WHICH FORM:

a)      during the first 5 days

b)      during the first 14 days

c)      during the first 3 days

d)      during the first 10 days

 

17. SUBACUTE INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE THOSE WHICH FORM:

a)      during the first 3 days

b)      during the first 3-14 days

c)      during the first 7-20 days

d)      during the first 1-30 days

 

18. CHRONIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE THOSE WHICH FORM:

a)      in 3 days

b)      in 14 days

c)      in 10 days

d)      in 7 days

e)      in 12 days

 

19. CAUSES OF BRAIN COMPRESSION IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:

a)      intracranial hematomas

b)      impressed skull fractures

c)      fractures of the cranial basis

d)      pneumocephalus

e)      subdural hydromas

 

20. CAUSES OF BRAIN COMPRESSION IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:

a)      perforated skull fractures

b)      brain edema and swelling

c)      foreign bodies

d)      subarachnoid bleeding

e)      epidural hematomas

 

21. AS BRAIN DECOMPRESSION MEASURES IN CCT THE FOLLOWING ARE PERFORMED:

a)      decompression trepanations

b)      defect cranioplasty

c)      liquidation of the impressed fracture

d)      removal of the intracranial hematomas

 

22. PRIMARY CRANIOPLASTY OF THE SKULL DEFECT IS PERFORMED:

a)      in the first 2 days

b)      up to 14 days

c)      to 2 months

d)      after 2 months

 

23. PRIMARILY-POSTPONED CRANIOPLASTY OF THE SKULL DEFECTS IS PERFORMED:

a)      in the first 2 days

b)      up to 14 days

c)      up to 2 months

d)      after 2 months

 

24. IN DIFFUSE AXONAL INJURY CLINICAL PRESENTATION IS DETERMINED BY MORPHOLOGICAL CHANGES OCCURING AT THE LEVEL:

a)      in the cortical regions of the frontal lobes

b)      in the deep regions of the brain with impairment of the white matter, corpus callosum and subcortical structures

c)      in the medulla with lesions of the nuclei of the cranial nerves

d)      in the upper cervical region of the spinal cord and in the medulla

 

25. DIFFUSE AXONAL INJURY MOST OFTEN PRESENTS WITH:

a)      prolonged comatose status

b)      vegetative status

c)      practically always with meningeal syndrome

d)      pyramid-extrapyramid tetrasyndrome

e)      mild transient and focal symptoms

 

26. IN THE SYNDROME OF PROLONGED COMPRESSION OF THE HEAD PRIMARY SURGICAL DEBRIDEMENT OF THE HEAD WOUNDS:

a)      is early and is performed during the first hours in the injury admission ward

b)      is postponed and is performed in the specialized facilities

c)      is late and is performed in the general surgical inpatient departments

d)      is early and is performed in the general surgical inpatient departments

 

27. FATTY EMBOLIZATION OF THE CEREBRAL VESSELS IN CCT IS OBSERVED:

a)      in fracture of the cranial basis

b)      in multiple fractures of the calvarium

c)      in joint cranioskeletal trauma

d)      in gunshot skull fractures

e)      in isolated intracranial hematomas

 

 

28. DURING EMERGENCY MEDICAL CARE IN CCT FOREIGN BODIES OFF THE BRAIN:

a)      should be necessarily removed

b)      are removed through active aspiration and dissection of the brain substance

c)      are not removed

d)      the foreign bodies with even edges made of hard material are predominantly removed

 

29. COMBINED CCT IS:

a)      constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of various damaging factors

b)      constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of mechanical factor on several regions of the body

c)      fractures of the bones of the calvarium which combine with intracranial hematomas

d)      intracranial hematomas which combine with trauma of the facial skeleton

 

30. JOINT CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA IS:

a)      constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of mechanical factor on several regions of the body

b)      constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of various damaging factors

c)      combination of fractures of the bones of calvarium with intracranial hematomas or liquorrhoea

 

31. ACCORDING TO GLASGOW COMA SCALE A SEVERE CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA WOULD SCORE:

a)      1-2 points

b)      3-7 points

c)      8-10 points

d)      8 points

 

32. ACCORDING TO GLASGOW COMA SCALE A MODERATELY SEVERE CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA WOULD SCORE:

a)      1-2 points

b)      3-7 points

c)      5-7points

d)      8-12 point

 

33. ACCORDING TO GLASGOW COMA SCALE A MILD CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA WOULD SCORE:

a)      3-5 points

b)      7-10 points

c)      13-15 points

d)      10-12 point

 

34. NASAL LIQUORRHOEA MOST OFTEN OCCURS IN FRACTIONS IN THE REGION OF:

a)      frontal sinus

b)      petrosus part of the temporal bone pyramid

c)      cribriform plate

d)      ethmoidal bon

 

35. AURICULAR LIQUORRHOEA MOST OFTEN OCCURS IN FRACTIONS IN THE REGION OF:

a)      petrosus part of the temporal bone pyramid

b)      frontal sinus

c)      cribriform plate

d)      sphenoidal sinus

e)      ethmoidal bon

 

36. SUPPLEMENTAL METHODS IN THE DIAGNOSTICS OF LIQUORRHOEA ARE:

a)      glucotest

b)      endoscopic examination

c)      Echo-encephalography

d)      radioisotope gamma-cisternography

e)      CT-cisternography

f)       carotid angiography

 

37. MENINGEEAL SYNDROME IS MOST OFTEN IN THE CLINICAL PRESENTATION OF:

a)      brain concussion

b)      brain contusion

c)      chronic subdural hematoma

d)      chronic subdural hydroma

 

38. ACCORDING TO THE TYPE OF WOUND CANAL THERE ARE THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF GUNSHOT CRANIOCEREBRAL INJURIES:

a)      perforating

b)      blind

c)      open

d)      tangent

e)      subaponeurotic

f)       ricoche

 

39. INFLAMMTORY CRANIOCEREBRAL COMPLICATIONS OF THE CCT INCLUDE:

a)      ventriculitis

b)      liquorrhoea

c)      abscess

d)      meningitis

e)      encephalitis

 

40 NON-INFLAMMTORY CRANIOCEREBRAL COMPLICATIONS OF THE CCT INCLUDE:

a)      posttraumatic granulomas

b)      dislocation syndromes

c)      thromboembolism of cerebral vessels, brain infarction

d)      late prolapse of the brain

e)      collapse of the brain

 

41. EXTRACRANIAL COMPLICATIONS:

a)      shock

b)      DIC syndrome

c)      pneumonia

d)      liquorrhoea

e)      acute cardiovascular failure, cardiac rhythm disorders

 

42. IN WHICH CASES SHOULD CCT BE CONSIDERED AN OPEN ONE:

a)      injury of the skull and brain with contusions and wounds of the soft tissues without lesion of the aponeurosis

b)      injury of the skull and brain with contusions and wounds of the soft tissues with the lesion of aponeurosis

c)      all cases of CCT with liquorrhoea

d)      CCT with any types of calvarium fractures

 

43. PENETRATING CCT IS CONSIDERED TO BE:

a)      open CCT with rupture of the arachnoid

b)      open CCT with injury of the dura mater

c)      open CCT with pneumocephalus

d)      open CCT with hydrocephalus

 

44. THE FOLLOWING OCCURS IN BRAIN CONCUSSIOS:

a)      only changes in functioning of the neural cells

b)      solitary ruptures of axons in the diencephalic regions of the brain

c)      ultrastructural changes such as injury of the synaptic membranes, cellular organelles, redistribution of the cellular fluid

d)      small focal changes in the cortical regions of frontal and temporal lobes as well as microscopic hemorrhages in the paraventricular zones

 

45. THE COURSE OF CCT HAS THE FOLLOWING PERIODS:

a)      acute

b)      subacute

c)      intermediate

d)      final

e)      remote

 

46. COMPRESSION OF THE BRAIN IN PNEUMOCEPHALUS IS POSSIBLE IN THE PRESENCE OF:

a)      valve mechanism in fractures of the cranial basis

b)      permanent communication of the cranial cavity with the environment with the defect of calvarium in the temporal region

c)      presence of the defect of the arachnoid mater in the region of the temporal bone pyramid

d)      presence of the defect of the dura mater in the region of the temporal bone pyramid

 

47. CEPHALOHEMATOMA IS A:

a)      subcutaneous hematoma

b)      subaponeurotic hematoma

c)      subperiostal hematoma

d)      subdural hematoma

e)      multi-storey hematoma

 

48. THE OPTIMAL TREATMENT METHOD IN CEPHALOHEMATOMAS IS:

a)      dissection with further drainage

b)      puncture removal

c)      total removal with its capsule

d)      total removal with bone resection

e)      decompressive cranial trepanation

 

49. TYPES OF CONSCIOUSNESS DISORDERS IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:

a)      torpor

b)      sopor

c)      coma

d)      shock

e)      amnesia

 

50. FOR BRAIN CONCUSSION TYPICAL ARE:

a)      hort-term unconsciousness

b)      multiple vomiting

c)      one-time vomiting

d)      headache

e)      presence of mild dislocation syndrome

 

51. AMONG THE TRASIENT FOCAL SYMPTOMS IN BRAIN CONCUSSION THE MOST FREQUENT IS:

a)      spontaneous horizontal nystagmus

b)      Brudzinskiy symptom

c)      Marinesku-Radovici symptom

d)      Lasseg’s symptom

e)      weakness of convergence

 

52. THE METHOD OF CHICE IN THERAPEUTIC TACTICS IN TRAUMATIC SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGES IS:

a)      urgent surgical intervention aimed at arresting of the bleeding and decompression of the brain

b)      unloading lumbar punctures

c)      selective neurosurgical intervention aimed at decompression of the brain in 7-10 days after injury

d)      stereotactic clipping of the pia mater vessels in 7-10 days after injury

 

53. SUBDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE LOCATED:

a)      between the aponeurosis and the periosteum

b)      between the dura and the arachnoid mater

c)      between the dura and the periosteum

d)      in the great occipital cistem

 

54. IN CASE OF SUBDURAL HEMATOMA AND DISLOCATION OF THE BRAIN THE FOOLOWING IS INDICATED:

a)      urgent neurosurgical intervention

b)      dynamic follow-up in the intensive care unit

c)      hemostatic therapy and dynamic follow-up in the neurologic department

d)      urgent lumbar puncture, especially in hematomas of the posterior cranial fosse

 

55. METHOD OF SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ACUTE SUBDURAL HEMATOMAS IS:

a)      removal through the drilled openings

b)      removal during skull trepanation

c)      endovascular removal

d)      stereotactic removal

e)      puncture removal of the hematoma

 

56. SUBDURAL HYDROMAS ARE:

a)      subarachnoid accumulation of CSF

b)      accumulation of exudate under the dura

c)      accumulation of CSF under the dura

d)      accumulation of liquid blood under the dura

e)      accumulation of transsudate under the dura

 

57. METHODS OF SURGICAL TREATMENT OF SUBDURAL HYDROMAS:

a)      puncture emptying through the drilled opening

b)      stereotactic removal

c)      prolonged endolumbar drainage

d)      endovascular removal

 

58. PECULIARITIES OF CCT IN THE ELDERLY AND SENILE AGE:

a)      hypertensive syndrome is mildly prominent

b)      hypertensive syndrome is almost always present

c)      severe consciousness disorders develop frequently

d)      relatively severe lesions of the brain

e)      brain lesions are relatively milder than those in young and middle-aged patients

 

59. PECULIARITIES OF CCT IN ALCOHOLIC INTOXICATION ARE:

a)      relatively mild course

b)      consciousness disorders are often more prominent and prolonged

c)      quick progression of intracranial hypertension

d)      hypertensive syndrome is mildly prominent

e)      prominent vestibular and vegetative disorders

f)       frequently “blurry” symptom-free period in intracranial hematomas

g)      decreased critical attitude to their own status

 

60. GROWING CRANIAL BONE FRACTURES ARE MOST TYPICAL FOR:

a)      children younger than 3 years old

b)      elderly and senior people

c)      for patients with skull base fractures

d)      for patients with injuries of the caldarium

 

61. PECULIARITY OF EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS IN CHILDREN IS

a)      limitation to a single bone (along the suture line)

b)      frequently spreads beyond the limits of cranial suture

 

62. SHOCK IN ISOLATED CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA:

a)      is rather frequent (in 10-15% of cases)

b)      is practically never observed (1-2% cases)

 

63. IN CASE OF EPIDURAL HEMATOMA THE FOLLOWING IS INDICATED:

a)      urgent neurosurgical intervention

b)      urgent lumbar puncture to determine the size of hematoma

c)      dynamic follow-up (control CT or MRI) in the settings of intensive care unit

 

64. THE METHOD OF CHOICE FOR SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ACUTE EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS IS:

a)      removal by means of trepanation

b)      endovascular removal

c)      puncture removal through the drilled openings

d)      stereotactic removal

 

65. MAJOR INDIRECT MECHANISMS OF SPINE INJURY ARE:

a)      hyperflexion

b)      traction

c)      hyperextension

d)      rotation

e)      axial compression

 

66. A YOUNG PATIENT HAS BEEN FOUND UNCONSCIOUS ON THE STREET. BLOODPRESSURE 70/0, PULSE 120, SKIN IS PALE, COLD, CONSCIOUSNESS DISORDER OF COMA II, CONTACT IS NON-PRODUCTIVE, PUPILS ARE MODERATELY DILATED, FLACCID REACTION TO LIGHT, NO FOCAL SYMPTOMS WERE DETECTED. DURING EXAMINATION A CONTUSED SUPERFICIAL WOUND HAS BEEN FOUND IN THE RIGHT TEMPORO-FRONTAL REGION. WHICH DEPARTMENT SHOULD THIS PATIENT BE HOSPITALIZED TO?

a)      traumatologic

b)      neurosurgical

c)      neurologic

d)      general surgical

e)      cardiologic

 

67. PATIENT HAS BEEN TRANSPORTED TO NEUROSYRGICAL DEPARTMENT FROM THE SITE OF A CAR ACCIDENT IN A SEVERE STATUS (GCS – 7 POINTS). THERE IS A PERIPHERAL PALSY OF MIMIC MUSCLES OF THE LEFT HALF OF THE FACE, RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, POSITIVE KERNIG’S SYMPTOM, LEFT PUPIL IS DILATED, WEAK REACTION TO LIGHT, SUBCUTANEOUS HEMATOMA IN THE LEFT TEMPORAL REGION. BLOOD PRESSURE 140/70, PULSE 56. CHOOSE THE MOST INFORMATIVE METHOD OF INVESTIGATION:

a)      selective angiography

b)      encephaloscintigraphy

c)      lumbar puncture

d)      computed tomography

e)      electroencephalography

 

68. PATIENT HAS BEEN TRANSPORTED TO NEUROSYRGICAL DEPARTMENT FROM THE SITE OF A CAR ACCIDENT IN A SEVERE STATUS (GCS – 7 POINTS). THERE IS A PERIPHERAL PALSY OF MIMIC MUSCLES OF THE LEFT HALF OF THE FACE, RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, POSITIVE KERNIG’S SYMPTOM, LEFT PUPIL IS DILATED, WEAK REACTION TO LIGHT, SUBCUTANEOUS HEMATOMA IN THE LEFT TEMPORAL REGION. BLOOD PRESSURE 140/70, PULSE 56. ON THE CT SCANS AN EPIDURAL HEMATOMA HAS BEEN FOUND IN THE LEFT TEMPORAL REGION. DISLOCATION OF MIDLINE STRUCTURES IS 6 MM. CHOOSE THE THERAPEUTIC TACTICS:

a)      dynamic follow-up with control computed tomography

b)      urgent neurosurgical intervention

c)      unloading lumbar punctures and dynamic follow-up

d)      urgent puncture of the lateral ventricles

 

69. A 35-YEAR OLD MAN HAS BEEN ADMITTED TO THE NEUROSURGICAL DEPARTMENT IN A SEVERE STATUS AFTER A CAR ACCIDENT. IN THE ADMISSION WARD HE BECAME CONSCIOUS, BUT DURIN THE EXAMINATION HE BECAME UNCONSCIOUS AGAIN. SEIZURE HAS OCCURRED. CLINICALLY: RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, LEFT-SIDE MYDRIASIS, PULSE 52, BLOOD PRESSURE 160/80. A LINEAR FRACTURE OF THE LEFT TEMPORAL BONE HAS BEEN REVEALED DURING CRANIOGRAPHY. PRELIMINARY DIAGNOSIS:

a)      closed CCT, brain concussion

b)      closed CCT, brain contusion

c)      closed CCT, acute epidural hematoma

d)      closed CCT, subarachnoid hemorrhag

 

70. A 35-YEAR OLD MAN HAS BEEN ADMITTED TO THE NEUROSURGICAL DEPARTMENT IN A SEVERE STATUS AFTER A CAR ACCIDENT. IN THE ADMISSION WARD HE BECAME CONSCIOUS, BUT DURIN THE EXAMINATION HE BECAME UNCONSCIOUS AGAIN. SEIZURE HAS OCCURRED. CLINICALLY: RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, LEFT-SIDE MYDRIASIS, PULSE 52, BLOOD PRESSURE 160/80. A LINEAR FRACTURE OF THE LEFT TEMPORAL BONE HAS BEEN REVEALED DURING CRANIOGRAPHY. WHAT OTHER METHODS SHOULD BE USED TO VERIFY THE DIAGNOSIS?

a)      electroencephalography

b)      Echo-encephalography

c)      lumbar puncture

d)      pneumoencephalography

e)      computed tomography

 

71. A 28-YEAR OLD PATIENT IS REPORTING HEADACHE WHICH INCREASES IN THУ MORNING TIME, NAUSEA, VERTIGO. PERIODICALLY FEVER IS OBSERVED UP TO 38ºC. DURING THE RECENT 3 WEEKS PATIENT'S EYESIGHT HAS WORSENED. 4 MONTHS EARLIER HE HAS BEEN HOSPITALIZED IN THE NEUROLOGIC DEPARTMENT OF THE DISTRICT HOSPITAL DUE TO BRAIN CONCUSSION, CONTUSED WOUND OF THE RIGHT TEMPORAL REGION. DURING THE INVESTIGATION INITIAL MANIFESTATIONS OF OPTIC NERVE DISK EDEMA ARE DETECTED AS WELL AS DILATION OF THE LEFT PUPIL, MILD RIGHT-SIDED HEMIPARESIS PREDOMINANTLY IN THE UPPER EXTREMITIES. SET THE PRELIMINARY DIAGNOSIS:

a)      chronic subdural hematoma

b)      posttraumatic brain abscess

c)      subdural hematoma

d)      posttraumatic carotid-cavernous fistula

e)      late prolapse of the brain

 

72. A 28-YEAR OLD PATIENT IS REPORTING HEADACHE WHICH INCREASES IN THE MORNING TIME, NAUSEA, VERTIGO. PERIODICALLY FEVER IS OBSERVED UP TO 38ºC. DURING THE RECENT 3 WEEKS PATIENT'S EYESIGHT HAS WORSENED. 4 MONTHS EARLIER HE HAS BEEN HOSPITALIZED IN THE NEUROLOGIC DEPARTMENT OF THE DISTRICT HOSPITAL DUE TO BRAIN CONCUSSION, CONTUSED WOUND OF THE RIGHT TEMPORAL REGION. DURING THE INVESTIGATION INITIAL MANIFESTATIONS OF OPTIC NERVE DISK EDEMA ARE DETECTED AS WELL AS DILATION OF THE LEFT PUPIL, MILD RIGHT-SIDED HEMIPARESIS PREDOMINANTLY IN THE UPPER EXTREMITIES. WHICH SUPPLEMENTAL INVESTIGATION HAS TO BE PERFORMED TO SET THE DIAGNOSIS?

a)      pneumoencephalography

b)      electroencephalography

c)      magnetic resonance imaging

d)      ventriculography

e)      transcranial dopplerography

 

73. CLINICAL SIGNS OF DISLOCATION IN THE CERVICAL SPINE ARE:

a)      forced position of the head, severe pain, especially during head movements, neck muscle tension

b)      free course of the disease, mild crackle during maximal rotations of the head

c)      continuous vomiting, generalized epileptic seizures, presence of alternating syndrome

 

74. HEMATOMYELIA IS A:

a)      hemorrhage under the spinal meninges

b)      hemorrhage into the white matter of the spinal cord

c)      hemorrhage into the grey matter of the spinal cord

 

75. MAJOR METHOD FOR TREATMENT OF HEMATOMYELIA IS:

a)      urgent neurosurgical intervention with resection of obviously non-viable regions

b)      conservative (medical) treatment (hemostatic therapy, hypothermia etc.)

c)      combination of a neurosurgical intervention aimed at resection of non-viable regions of the spinal cord and intensive conservative treatment

 

76. CAUSES OF SPINAL CORD COMPRESSION IN TRAUMA ARE:

a)      spinal meningeal hematomas

b)      bones or their fragments

c)      ligaments

d)      foreign bodies

e)      intervertebral disks

 

77. MOST TYPICAL SIGNS OF INJURY OF THE THORACIC SPINE AT THE LEVEL OF TH4 –TH5 ARE:

a)      spastic tetraplegia, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function

b)      superior flaccid paralysis and inferior spastic paralysis

c)      inferior spastic paralysis, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function

d)      inferior flaccid paralysis, peripheral-type disorders of urinary bladder function

 

78. MOST TYPICAL SIGNS OF INJURY OF THE CERVICAL SPINE AT THE LEVEL OF C3 –C4  ARE:

a)      a spastic tetraplegia, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function

b)      b superior flaccid paralysis and inferior spastic paralysis, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function

c)      c superior spastic paralysis, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function

d)      d spastic tetraplegia, peripheral-type disorders of urinary bladder function

 

79. WHICH SPINAL CORD INJURY SHOULD UNDERGO SURGICAL TREATMENT?

a)      concussion

b)      contusion

c)      compression

d)      complete anatomic rupture

e)      hematomyelia

 

80. TO PREVENT UROSEPSIS IN PATIENTS WITH SPINAL CORD INJURY AND SPINAL SHOCK PHENOMENA THE FOLLOWING ARE NECESSARY:

a)      constant catheterization of the urinary bladder with periodical irrigation with antiseptics

b)      application of the inflow-outflow Monroe system

c)      urethral plastics

d)      subarachnoid space drainage

 

81. SHORT-TERM INFLAMMATORY COMPLICATIONS OF THE VERTEBROSPINAL INJURY INCLUDE:

a)      purulent epiduritis

b)      purulent meningomyelitis

c)      spinal cord abscess

d)      posttraumatic aseptic arachnoiditis

 

82. WHICH IS THE MAJOR ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATION FOR SPINAL PUNCTURE:

a)      high blood pressure

b)      soporous consciousness disorders

c)      pregnancy

d)      acute urinary retention

e)      hypertensive syndrome

 

83. WHICH RADIOGRAPHIC SIGNS ARE NOT THE EVIDENCE OF INCREAST INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE?

a)      enlarged digital impressions

b)      emphasized sutures of the calvarium

c)      osteoporosis of the dorsum of sella turcica

d)      hyperostosis of the temporal bone

 

84. INDICATE THE REASONS OF INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE:

a)      brain abscess

b)      brain tumor

c)      edema-swelling of the brain, trauma

d)      all of the mentioned above

 

85. SELECT INDICATIONS FOR CAROTID CEREBRAL ANGIOGRAPHY:

a)      meningitis

b)      suspicion of the cerebellar tumor

c)      suspicion of the craniospinal tumor

d)      spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage

e)      none of the abovementioned

 

86. WHICH ARE THE MAJOR CLINICAL SIGNS OF TRAUMATIC SUBARACHNOIDAL HEMORRHAGE:

a)      blood in the CSF

b)      severe headache

c)      meningeal signs

d)      fever

e)      all of the abovementioned

 

87. IN WHAT NOSOLOGIC FORMS OF BRAIN INJURY DISEASE IS SYMPTOM “LUSID PERIOD”:

a)      brain contusion

b)      brain concussion

c)      subdural hematoma

d)      subarachnoid hemorrhage

e)      none of the listed

 

88. TRANSITION FROM PROLONGED COMA TO STABLE OR TRASIENT VEGETATIVE STATUS IS TAKING PLACE IN:

a)      brain concussion

b)      diffuse axonal lesion of the brain

c)      subdural hematoma

d)      brain tumor

 

89. WHICH OF THE LISTED METHODS OF INVESTIGATION SHOULD THE PATIENT WITH CCT UNDERGO FIRST OF ALL:

a)      chest X-ray

b)      general blood analysis

c)      ultrasonography of chest organs

d)      skull X-ray in two projections

e)      ECG

 

90. WHICH OF THE LISTED SYMPTOMS IS NOT INFROMATIVE IN FRACTURE OF THE CRANIAL BASIS:

a)      auricular liquorrhoea

b)      “eyeglasses” symptom

c)      eosinophilia

d)      subarachnoid hemorrhage

 

91. DETECTION OF BLOOD IN THE CSF IS TYPICAL IN:

a)      brain concussion

b)      epidural hematoma

c)      spinal cord concussion

d)      subarachnoid hemorrhage

e)      tuberculous meningitis

 

92. PERSISTENT ANISOCRIA WITH STAGNANT DISKS OF THE OPTIC NERVES CAN BE OBSERVED IN CASE OF:

a)      chronic subdural hematoma

b)      contusion of the cervical spinal cord

c)      subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)      linear fracture of the temporal bone

e)      brain concussion

 

93. INDICATE MAJOR CLINICAL SIGNS OF THE CEREBELLAR TUMOR:

a)      insomnia

b)      unsteady gait

c)      position headaches

d)      impaired movement coordination

e)      none of the abovementioned

 

94. INDICATE MAJOR CLINICAL SIGNS OF THE TUMOR OF PONTO-CEREBELLAR ANGLE:

a)      tinnitus in one ear with decreased hearing in the same ear

b)      vestibular disorders

c)      spontaneous nystagmus

d)      polydipsia

e)      none of the abovementioned

 

95. WHICH OF THE LISTED SYMPTOMS INDICATE EOSINOPHILIC ADENOMA:

a)      acromegaly, gigantism

b)      amenorrhoea, decreased libido

c)      bitemporal hemianopia

d)      fever

e)      none of the abovementioned

 

96. IN BASOPHILIC PITUITARY ADENOMA (ITSENKO-CUSHING’S SYNDROME) THE FOLLOWING CLINICAL SIGNS ARE OBSERVED:

a)      cachexia

b)      arterial hypotension

c)      callergy

d)      fever

e)      none of the abovementioned

 

97. INDICATE DIRECT RADIOLOGIC SIGNS OF THE BRAIN TUMOR:

a)      disconnection of sutures, their emphasis

b)      dislocation of pineal body

c)      hyperostosis or osteoporosis of the adjacent to the tumor bone section

d)      bone destruction

e)      none of the abovementioned

 

98. MENINGEAL TUMORS OF THE BRAIN DO NOT INCLUDE:

a)      meningioma

b)      sarcoma

c)      glioblastoma

d)      meningosarcoma

 

99. FOCAL NEUROLOGIC SYMPTOMS IN BRAIN TUMORS ARE DEVIDED INTO:

a)      primary focal

b)      secondary focal

c)      neighboring symptoms

d)      none of the abovementioned

 

100. FOSTER-KENNEDY SYMPTOM IS OBSERVED IN:

a)      tumors of the pole of the frontal lobe

b)      tumors of the occipital lobes

c)      tumors of the temporal lobe

d)      tumors of the parietal lobes

e)      cerebellar tumors

 

101. FOR TUMORS OF THE PINEAL GLAND MOST TYPICAL IS:

a)      endocrine and metabolic disorders

b)      epileptic seizures

c)      homonymic hemianopia

d)      central paralysis

e)      movement coordination disorders

 

102. WHICH OF THE LISTED FACTORS IS NOT TYPICAL FOR SPINAL OSTEOCHONDROSIS?

a)      degenerative changes of the intervertebral disks

b)      reactive changes in the vertebrae

c)      reactive changes in the ligaments

d)      impaired congruence of the intervertebral joints

e)      osteoporosis of bodies and arches of the vertebrae

 

103. DIRECT CAUSES FOR INITIAL MANIFESTATIONS OF OSTEOCHONDROSIS ARE:

a)      mechanical factor (weight lifting, abrupt movement)

b)      weakening of the abdominal press after surgeries and deliveries

c)      consequences of previous infections and hypothermia

d)      all of the abovementioned

 

104. WHICH OF THE SYMPTOMS IS NOT TYPICAL FOR SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE IN RUPTURE OF ARTERIAL ANEURISM OF CEREBRAL VESSELS:

a)      Kernig’s symptom

b)      Brudzinskiy’s symptom

c)      occipital stiffness

d)      paresis of the oculomotor nerve

e)      Horner’s symptom

 

105. WHICH OF THE LISTED CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS IS NOT TYPICAL FOR ARTERIOVENOUS MALFORMATIONS OF THE BRAIN:

a)      epileptic seizure

b)      syndrome of the intracranial hypotension

c)      recurrent ischemic disorders of the cerebral circulation

d)      intracranial hemorrhage

 

106. INTRACRANIAL SURGERIES IN PROSOPALGIAS INCLUDE:

a)      transection of the I branch of trigeminal nerve

b)      Janet’s surgery

c)      transection of the 2 branch of trigeminal nerve

d)      transection of the 3 branch of trigeminal nerve

e)      transection of glossopharyngeal nerve

 

107. IN WHAT TYPE OF PROSOPALGIA “STATUS NEURALGICUS” DEVELPS MOST FREQUENTLY?

a)      trigeminal neuralgia

b)      neuralgia of occipital nerves

c)      glossopharyngeal neuralgia.

d)      periodic facial neuralgia

e)      migraine

 

108. WHICH OF THE LISTED FACTORS IS ETIOLOGIC FOR DEVELOPMENT OF PAIN PAROXYSM IN THE ZONE OF 5th PAIR OF CRANIAL NERVES?

a)      foci of chronic infection in the oral cavity

b)      narrowing of bone canals

c)      malocclusion

d)      compression of the nerve root by the superior cerebellar artery

e)      all of the abovementioned

 

109. SYMPTOMATIC TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA CAN DEVELOP IN:

a)      spinal cord tumors

b)      arterial aneurism

c)      narrowing of the bone canals

d)      compression of the nerve root by superior cerebellar artery

e)      all of the mentioned above

 

110. JANETT’S SURGERY IS PERFORMED IN CASE OF:

a)      trigeminal neuralgia due to vaso-neural conflict

b)      trigeminal neuralgia due to narrowing of bone canals

c)      neuralgias of occipital nerves

d)      neuralgias of glossopharyngeal nerve

e)      neuralgias of cilliary ganglion

 

111. INFORMATIVE SYMPTOM IN DETECTION OF HYDROCEPHALUS IN:

a)      increased motor activity

b)      impaired statics

c)      flaccidity, adynamia

d)      increasing of the size of the head

e)      increased excitability

 

112. WHAT METHOD OF TREATMENT OF HYDROCEPHALUS DO YOU KNOW?

a)      perforation of the septum pellucidum

b)      dissection of the cerebellar vermis

c)      puncture of corpus callosum

d)      ventriculoperitneostomy

e)      brain tumor removal

 

Head of the neurosurgery

department, Professor                                                          V.A.Pyatikop